Talk:Banach-Tarski Paradox

Paradox
The Banach-Tarski paradox isn't a paradox in the sense of the Russell's Paradox - it's just called this colloqiually and in the literature, much like Europe is called a continent. It's a theorem. Zelmerszoetrop 06:56, 29 January 2009 (UTC)


 * So worth recategorising it and putting a redirect from / to Banach-Tarski Theorem? As that's what I've always understood it as (but then in this context I've only seen it written down - I have no colloquial interaction with any mathematicians anywhere). --Matt Westwood 07:57, 29 January 2009 (UTC)


 * It is a theorem insofar as it is a proved, absolutely true result, but it is called a paradox because the result is so remarkable and unexpected. Nobody who came to this sight looking for its proof would ever search for the Banach-Tarski Theorem.  The only expression used for this result is the Banach-Tarski paradox and I'm of the opinion we would do well to follow that convention if we want the site to be a usable reference.
 * I can think of other times this issue might come up in the course of this wiki - Braess's Paradox for one, but there are others. In general, I think we should stick to the name the theorem is most commonly known as, as we have down with Poincare Conjecture. Zelmerszoetrop 21:10, 29 January 2009 (UTC)

Goodness, yep, that seems to be right ... googling only gives "paradox". We live and learn. --Matt Westwood 21:45, 29 January 2009 (UTC)

... can we include this joke?
 * Q: Give me an anagram of Banach-Tarski.
 * A: Banach-Tarski Banach-Tarski. --Matt Westwood 21:47, 29 January 2009 (UTC)