Definition talk:Pairwise Disjoint

Does it give us an advantage to change the definition from a set of sets to a family of sets? Before you can define a family you need to have defined the concept of a mapping, which is further down the road of complexity. What would be good to strive for would be a definition from as basic a level as possible. --prime mover 02:16, 27 April 2012 (EDT)
 * I can see your point, and I agree. So it would become 'For $S, T \in \Bbb S$ such that $S \ne T$, $S \cap T = \varnothing$.' is it not? --Lord_Farin 04:02, 27 April 2012 (EDT)
 * Effectively. It means reverting back to the last version of Dec 2011. --prime mover 08:35, 27 April 2012 (EDT)