Talk:Equivalence of Well-Ordering Principle and Induction

It's a little silly to talk about equivalence between tautologies - it would seem more meaningful (and useful) if this statement were generalized to induction on well-founded or well-ordered sets. --asalmon


 * Why? --GFauxPas 09:58, 29 November 2011 (CST)


 * If any two statements are tautologies, then they are automatically equivalent. -Andrew Salmon 15:02, 29 November 2011 (CST)
 * That strong and weak induction are logically equivalent holds even if they're not tautologies, they can all be false as well, or all be axiomatic (and actually I learned them as being axiomatic, not as being theorems). No? --GFauxPas 15:08, 29 November 2011 (CST)