Talk:Young's Inequality for Products

I strengthened the hypothesis to $p, q > 1$ since the assumption $p, q > 0$ combined with $1/p + 1/q = 1$ implies $p, q > 1$ (if $1/p = 1$ then $q = \infty$ in the usual abuse of notation, and if $1/p > 1$ we have $q < 0$ and so on) and I thought I'd make this explicit. Feel free to make a note of this on the page. Caliburn (talk) 20:18, 5 May 2022 (UTC)
 * It is sense that you are making. --prime mover (talk) 21:48, 5 May 2022 (UTC)