Definition talk:Homomorphism (Abstract Algebra)

Is it modern convention to say something like $$\varphi(a)=a~\forall ~a\in F$$? If so I think I'm going to go and kill myself.

I learned to write it $$\forall a\in F: \varphi(a)=a$$ so as to emphasise the scope of the $$\forall$$. Otherwise (in more complicated constructions) the precise meaning of a nested sequence of $$\forall, \exists$$ etc. can become ambiguous. If the fundamentals of logic are no longer considered part of mathematical rigor then it's a disappointing development. --Matt Westwood 07:33, 20 December 2008 (UTC)

Ummm, "statement for all elements" and "for all elements, statement" seem the same to me, though were the statement to include "there exists" you wouldn't catch me dead commuting the two. Such is the difference between convergence and uniform convergence, continuity and uniform continuity, etc. What I've done here is fine given the context of the statement. --Grambottle 16:15, 20 December 2008 (UTC)

Yeah but it's not so obvious what it means. --Matt Westwood 19:47, 20 December 2008 (UTC)

I agree that "for all elements, statement" is probably better. If I use the other, I try always put in some space (\;\;\; seems tp be a reasonable amount of space in mathtext) or a comma. --Cynic-(talk) 01:49, 21 December 2008 (UTC)

Good touch-up on the F-homomorphism part. I just switched the notation from $$I_F$$ to $$1_F$$ as $$1_F$$ is much more common. This is one of those instances where I hate the convention and use it reluctantly on this site (also, will be using a set $$I_F(E,\Omega)$$ later on). I would be much much happier if convention was $$\iota_F$$ instead of $$1_F$$ but such is not the case. --Grambottle 15:47, 21 December 2008 (UTC)