Talk:Triangle Inequality for Integrals/Complex

Isn't a sufficient condition that simply $\displaystyle \int_a^b g \left({t}\right) \ \mathrm d t$ exist? Continuity isn't used in the proof. --Lord_Farin 11:15, 2 July 2012 (UTC)


 * You seem to be right - but as I didn't materially contribute towards this one myself I'm not at the coal face - and to check my sources would be tricky at the moment as I have set theory at the top of the heap right now. --prime mover 07:31, 5 July 2012 (UTC)