Talk:Left and Right Inverses of Mapping are Inverse Mapping

Khan uses this as a definition of an inverse function. I've seen some pages on PW that say "some sources use this as a definition and that as a theorem", but I don't want to add such a thing if Khan's approach is unusual. Is it a common approach? From Inverse Mapping is Unique it sounds like Khan is not the only one, but I want to make sure. --GFauxPas 16:13, 6 May 2012 (EDT)


 * It's just another one of those instances where statements A and B are equivalent. Some sources use A and some B as a definition, and from it derive the other. Just a matter of taste. --prime mover 16:25, 6 May 2012 (EDT)