Implication is Left Distributive over Conjunction/Reverse Implication/Formulation 2/Proof

Theorem

 * $\vdash \left({\left({p \implies q}\right) \land \left({p \implies r}\right)}\right) \implies \left({p \implies \left({q \land r}\right)}\right)$

Proof
Let us use the following abbreviations

Expanding the abbreviations leads us back to:
 * $\left({\left({p \implies q}\right) \land \left({p \implies r}\right)}\right) \implies \left({p \implies \left({q \land r}\right)}\right)$