Talk:No Bijection between Finite Set and Proper Subset

I don't understand how this follows from Equivalence of Mappings between Sets of Same Cardinality. Could someone please explain? --abcxyz 13:59, 9 April 2012 (EDT)


 * I guess the proof to be constructed would be a proof by contradiction, that such a mapping can't be one-to-one because the image is too small. I wonder if Cardinality of Subset of Finite Set would be a better to use, though? --GFauxPas 14:18, 9 April 2012 (EDT)


 * I think the proof is just an application of Cardinality of Image of Injection and Cardinality of Subset of Finite Set. How would one use Equivalence of Mappings between Sets of Same Cardinality to obtain a proof by contradiction? --abcxyz 14:25, 9 April 2012 (EDT)