Talk:Cartesian Product is Small iff Inverse is Small

Is $(B \times A)$ really the inverse of $(A \times B)$? I'm confused. --prime mover 11:48, 10 August 2012 (UTC)


 * Yes. It is.  We're using the Definition:Inverse Relation. --Andrew Salmon 17:19, 10 August 2012 (UTC)