Talk:Exponential Dominates Polynomial


 * $\displaystyle \sum_{m \geq 0}\frac{(\alpha n)^m}{m!} > \frac{(\alpha n)^{k+1}}{(k+1)!}$

Why? --GFauxPas (talk) 19:48, 9 July 2013 (UTC)


 * Because the the latter is a summand of the former when $m=k+1$ --Ybab321 (talk) 00:05, 18 October 2013 (UTC)