Definition talk:Logarithmic Integral

I don't buy it, sorry. How can it go from 0 if log(0) is not defined? --prime mover 02:21, 16 March 2011 (CDT)


 * Ignore me, I've looked it up in Abramowitz and Stegun, I need to do my homework. --prime mover 02:24, 16 March 2011 (CDT)


 * I think it's worth a remark on interpretation, I've seen at least two non-equivalent definitions of the Riemann integral --Linus44 12:24, 16 March 2011 (CDT)