Category talk:Axioms/Axiom of Infinity

Why are the set and class theory versions stated differently? The only change from sets to classes should be from $\exists x : \ldots$ to $\exists x \in V : \ldots$, or $\exists x: Set(x) \land \ldots$, or something to that effect, the single lined statement seems more elegant and rigorous than the other one. --TheoLaLeo (talk) 04:25, 23 November 2021 (UTC)


 * Because that's how they appear in the source works. --prime mover (talk) 06:22, 23 November 2021 (UTC)