Talk:Inverse for Real Multiplication

Proof?
I don't see why this proof cannot be applied to $0$. --kc_kennylau (talk) 09:45, 1 November 2016 (EDT)


 * Because $\dfrac 1 {x_n}$ is not defined when $x_n = 0$. --prime mover (talk) 10:55, 1 November 2016 (EDT)


 * Consider $x_n := 2^{-n}$. --kc_kennylau (talk) 10:57, 1 November 2016 (EDT)