Talk:Linear Combination of Integrals

Surely we don't need a completely separate statement for indefinite integrals to mirror the one for definite one - and vice versa - for all integrals we meet? That would be tedious. Do we not already have a proof which goes from one formulation to the other?

A better policy would perhaps be to formulate each one in terms of just the indefinite integral, and then use the general theorem that expresses one in terms of the other. Thoughts? --prime mover 01:40, 17 January 2012 (EST)


 * I didn't know there was such a theorem (unless it's just the fundamental theorem of calculus?). If there is, then that seems reasonable. --GFauxPas 07:21, 17 January 2012 (EST)