User talk:Misael.G.Mx/Sandbox

Hello, welcome to PW. I just wanted to point out that this theorem you are proving holds only if you take the codomain of $\arg$ to be $\R/2\pi\Z$. It does *not* hold for $\operatorname{Arg}$. Be cautious :) --Lord_Farin 15:13, 5 December 2011 (CST)