Talk:Empty Set is Subset of All Sets/Proof 2

Does any text actually prove it this way? Should we just get rid of it? It's convoluted, doesn't justify its steps well from the definitions, and it's hard to see how anyone could prefer it. --Dfeuer (talk) 18:28, 28 February 2013 (UTC)


 * Wholly immaterial. What brings you to this destructive attitude? Bringing in new proofs, fine, but then to condescend on the other contributors and their efforts seems, no rather is, completely out of place. Please try and read your words from someone else's perspective. &mdash; Lord_Farin (talk) 18:31, 28 February 2013 (UTC)


 * Also, cf. Help:FAQ. &mdash; Lord_Farin (talk) 18:32, 28 February 2013 (UTC)