Talk:Inequality for Ordinal Exponentiation

Should the sequences $\langle a_i \rangle$ and $\langle b_i \rangle$ specifically be defined as finite of length $n$? If not, then it is probably worth adding a few words to the proof that "outside of the range $[1 .. n]$ the values of $a_i$ and $b_i$ are immaterial" in order to cater for the fact that the sequences in question can be open-ended. --prime mover 13:50, 18 August 2012 (UTC)