Talk:A function is bijective if and only if has an inverse

I'm the author of that page and I apologize for having written a proof of an already-proved theorem in this website (even if couldn't be able to find it), but I just think that "Every possible thing that can be wrong about this page is wrong" is wrong itself, since it would imply that the proof is wrong too but I found this on an university book and the proof works, so maybe that label would lead people to think that proof is wrong even if they're just looking for it. Thank you for your patience.


 * Heh, yeah, apart from the fact that the proof is correct.
 * Start with grokking the page Definition:Bijection and proceed from there.
 * You might want to spend some time browsing the site to get a feel for how we roll. --prime mover (talk) 11:09, 20 November 2020 (UTC)