Euclid's Lemma for Prime Divisors/Corollary

Corollary to Euclid's Lemma for Prime Divisors
Let $p, p_1, p_2, \ldots, p_n$ be primes such that:
 * $p \divides \displaystyle \prod_{i \mathop = 1}^n p_i$

Then:
 * $\exists i \in \closedint 1 n: p = p_i$

Proof
From Euclid's Lemma for Prime Divisors: General Result, $p \divides p_i$ for some $i$.

But by the definition of a prime number, the only divisors of $p_i$ are $1$ and $p_i$ itself.

As $1$ is not prime, it follows that $p = p_i$.

Hence the result.