Lebesgue 1-Space is Subset of Tempered Distribution Space

Theorem
Let $\map {L^1} \R$ be the Lebesgue $1$-space.

Let $\map {\SS'} \R$ be the tempered distribution space.

Then:


 * $\map {L^1} \R \subseteq \map {\SS'} \R$

Proof
Let $f \in \map {L^1} \R$.

By definition of the Lebesgue space:


 * $\ds \norm f_1 = \int_\R \size {\map f x} \rd x < \infty$

where $\norm {\, \cdot \,}_1$ denotes the 1-seminorm.

Let $\phi \in \map \SS \R$ be a Schwartz test function.

Let $T_f : \map \SS \R \to \R$ be a functional such that:


 * $\ds \map {T_f} \phi = \int_\R \map f x \map \phi x \rd x$

By Integral Operator is Linear, $\map {T_f} \phi$ is linear both $f$ and $\phi$.

Furthermore:

Let $\sequence {\phi_n}_{n \mathop \in \N}$ be a sequence in the Schwartz space.

Suppose $\sequence {\phi_n}_{n \mathop \in \N}$ converges in $\map \SS \R$:


 * $\phi_n \stackrel \SS {\longrightarrow} \mathbf 0$

where $\mathbf 0$ denotes the zero Schwartz test function.

That is:


 * $\ds \forall l, m \in \N : \lim_{n \mathop \to \infty} \sup_{x \mathop \in \R} \size {x^l \map {\phi_n^{\paren m} } x} = 0$

Set $m = 0$ and $l = 0$.

Then:

Therefore:

Thus:


 * $\ds \lim_{n \mathop \to \infty} \map {T_f} {\phi_n} = 0$

On the other hand:


 * $\map {T_f} {\mathbf 0} = 0$

Hence, from the definition of the tempered distribution it follows that:


 * $T_f \in \map {\SS'} \R$