# Definition talk:Variation/Signed Measure

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Cohn only mentions these are equivalent for finite signed measures - but I don't see why my proof for equivalence won't work for infinite too. Let me know if I've missed anything stupid when I put the equivalence proof up. Caliburn (talk) 13:05, 18 June 2022 (UTC)

- Yeah, based on a quick scan to revitalise the concepts in my head, that should work. — Lord_Farin (talk) 13:17, 18 June 2022 (UTC)