Talk:Integer to Power of p-1 over 2 Modulo p
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This is my first attempt at this: if I have broken any rules or conventions please advise and forgive me.
The first line of the theorem defines p as an odd prime.
The third line of the proof states: "if b^2 divides p, then b mod p = 0"
The seventh line of the proof states: "So either b+1 divides p or b−1 does."
Given the definition of p it seems to me that they should read: "if p divides b^2 , then b mod p = 0"
"So p divides b+1 or b−1 but not both."
--Joseph.odriscoll (talk) 20:56, 21 October 2012 (UTC) Joseph.odriscoll
- Good catch. --prime mover (talk) 22:01, 21 October 2012 (UTC)
- Thank you for noting, and for taking the time to notify us; the care you have shown by first posting to the talk page before editing the actual article already places you at a higher rank than most other new contributors.
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