Talk:Integral of Power

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Why is the theorem for all positive rational x rather than for all real x other than -1? It would seem like it would make more sense to state it separately for Fermat's proof --18:32, 17 November 2010 (UTC)

Whatever. Question is: do we have a separate page for the real-numbers result from the rational one? The latter is only interesting because it's pre-calculus. After the Fundamental Principle of Calculus it's trivial. --prime mover 20:22, 17 November 2010 (UTC)
Further thoughts: do we set up a page called "Fermat's Derivation of Integral of a Power"? If we do, then we are setting the precedent of naming a page after the method of proof rather than on the actual result, which corrupts the "purity" of having a page per result, with the various proofs as subpages as appropriate (see Pythag for 7 so far). If we start pages (separately named) for individual proofs of the same result, it may fragment it a bit much. OTOH it may not, and it may feel like a natural way to treat it.
If you have a good idea as to how to set it out, feel free to try it. --prime mover 22:53, 17 November 2010 (UTC)
O yes, nice one. --prime mover 06:36, 19 November 2010 (UTC)