Talk:Jordan's Lemma
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I'm a bit puzzled by this.
If we can prove this:
- $\ds \size {\int_{C_r} \map f z \rd z} \le \frac \pi {2 a} \paren {\max_{0 \mathop \le \theta \mathop \le \pi} \size {\map g {r e^{i \theta} } } }$
why do we then weaken it to this:
- $\ds \size {\int_{C_r} \map f z \rd z} \le \frac \pi a \paren {\max_{0 \mathop \le \theta \mathop \le \pi} \size {\map g {r e^{i \theta} } } }$
?
Is there something I'm missing? --prime mover (talk) 16:25, 28 May 2021 (UTC)
- There may well be a missing factor of $2$ somewhere. I wrote this quite a while ago so I'll try to work it through again. Caliburn (talk) 17:11, 28 May 2021 (UTC)