Talk:Zorn's Lemma Implies Zermelo's Well-Ordering Theorem

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This proof seems a bit confused. (considering $X \cup \set {x_0}$ when $x_0 \in X$, awkward notation for defining $\preceq'$, conclusion doesn't make sense to me) It's not quite up to $\mathsf{Pr} \infty \mathsf{fWiki}$ standard yet, but I've cleaned up the confusion. To do:

  • Prove that the union over a chain is an upper bound for that chain, pretty easy but should be spelt out
  • Show that $\preceq'$ is a (total) order
  • Show that $\preceq'$ is a well-order (if $A \subseteq E \cup \set {x_0}$ is non-empty, then its $\preceq'$-least element is $x_0$ if $x_0 \in A$, or its $\preceq$-least element otherwise)

Caliburn (talk) 12:32, 15 March 2022 (UTC)

The first does not seem "pretty easy" and may be independent of ZF? Certainly it can't be true that we know that the union of well-orderable sets is well-orderable, otherwise we could just take the union of singletons and find that all sets are well-orderable. Nor can we know it's not true, since then Well-Ordering and hence Choice would fail. I don't know how the criteria that they're included in each-other changes anything. Seeing as I am very much out of my depth with this I'll post a health warning and maybe come back to it much later, would appreciate if someone could look at this. Caliburn (talk) 16:48, 18 March 2022 (UTC)
Indeed you struck upon a bad case of handwaving at least, and possibly an entirely wrong argument. I have added a note explaining how I would fix this proof, which is typical of applications of Zorn. Before we start fleshing it out, please read over my suggestion and let me know if it makes sense.
To give you an idea, in the argument made before we could take the chain $W_n = \set{ -n, \ldots, -1}$ with standard ordering and this would lead to all sorts of problems. — Lord_Farin (talk) 20:07, 18 March 2022 (UTC)
I've had a look at the (correct) proof along these lines and think I understand it. I would err on the side of this proof idea being wrong, since they are only considering the underlying sets and want to order $\WW$ by $\subseteq$ which does not account for the order. (where as you say it needs to be specifically chosen) I don't think there's any counterexamples as stated in ZF, since that would mean we have a set that isn't well-orderable, implying $\neg \textbf {AC}$, meaning something's gone wrong somewhere. (???) I would guess that it's not provable either, but I'm not really sure. It would also change the conclusion slightly, but the contradiction getting $E = X$ is basically the same it looks like. Caliburn (talk) 20:28, 18 March 2022 (UTC)
I agree. It btw suffices to disprove the conclusion of the argument (union is well-ordered), it is not necessary to disprove the theorem in itself. For this the $W_n$ I mentioned above are enough. Key point is that "well-ordered" is linked to Definition:Well-Orderable Class and the point of choosing the well-ordering is nontrivial in a non-choice environment. In conclusion I would suggest to write the correct proof and dispose of this handwaving failure. We should check Folland if he really makes this mistake; I can't imagine. — Lord_Farin (talk) 20:34, 18 March 2022 (UTC)
This is where I got a bit confused. Wouldn't $\bigcup_n W_n$ be well-ordered wrt $\ge$, since we're not caring about the order on $W_n$ or $\bigcup_n W_n$ and we're free to pick any? (more generally doesn't the well-orderability of $\N$ imply the well-orderability of any countable set?) I think this is the whole problem with only looking at underlying sets. Caliburn (talk) 20:48, 18 March 2022 (UTC)

The problem with "we're free to pick any" is that we are trying to prove there is any in the first place... Otherwise the union isn't in $\WW$ and the argument fails. And the only way to construct it is by means of the chain, which is inadequately prepared for that task. — Lord_Farin (talk) 22:14, 18 March 2022 (UTC)

Update: I tracked the Folland book and indeed all this complexity is glossed over by "It is easy to verify that the hypotheses of Zorn's lemma are satisfied". Disappointing. — Lord_Farin (talk) 07:41, 19 March 2022 (UTC)
I think we're saying the same thing! Caliburn (talk) 10:59, 19 March 2022 (UTC)
Conclusion: Please take a look at Zorn's Lemma Implies Zermelo's Well-Ordering Theorem/Mistake and the proof on the main page I fleshed out this morning. Feedback welcome. — Lord_Farin (talk) 11:25, 19 March 2022 (UTC)
Sorry to be annoying here, but I don't think this is a satisfactory counterexample. (maybe we weren't saying the same thing!) I'm not actually sure what Folland means. If Folland means $\WW$ is the set of all well-orderable subsets of $X$, then membership of $\WW$ only requires that the set be a subset of $X$ and some well-ordering exists on it. So if the well-ordering thm holds then $\WW = \mathcal P X$ for any $X$. Since $\WW$ doesn't actually record any information about the well-order, (just that one exists) the fact that $\bigcup_n W_n$ is well-ordered by $>$ (rather than $<$) is enough for membership. (right?) If you could actually produce a counterexample you'd disprove the Well-Ordering Theorem in ZF. I do wonder if the claim that a union of any $\subseteq$-chain of well-orderable sets is well-orderable is actually equivalent to the well-ordering theorem, (meaning the proof is circular via this claim) or is some sort of weaker form of it. Either way I would have no idea how to prove it, I might ask on MSE. Caliburn (talk) 12:03, 19 March 2022 (UTC)
It turns out that the original contributor was slightly off in formulating what $\WW$ is in Folland. Folland (in the copy I tracked online) defines it as the well-orders of subsets of $X$ (so the actual orders, not just the underlying set), ordered by inclusion (as subsets of $X \times X$). In case he would have said "well-orderable subsets of $X$" you would have been right (and this is what was originally stated here on PW). Still interesting to figure out whether that statement is independent or not, though. I would welcome the insight. — Lord_Farin (talk) 12:31, 19 March 2022 (UTC)
Oh, this makes a lot of sense! Caliburn (talk) 12:42, 19 March 2022 (UTC)
I have asked MSE about this. Caliburn (talk) 13:59, 19 March 2022 (UTC)
Also maybe it's better to use $\sqsubseteq$ rather than $\preccurlyeq$? Caliburn (talk) 15:54, 19 March 2022 (UTC)