Weierstrass's Theorem/Lemma 1
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Lemma for Weierstrass's Theorem
Let $C \closedint 0 1$ denote the set of all real functions $f: \closedint 0 1 \to \R$ which are continuous on $\closedint 0 1$.
Let $\norm {\,\cdot \,}_\infty$ denote the supremum norm on $C$.
Let $X$ consist of the $f \in C \closedint 0 1$ such that:
- $\map f 0 = 0$
- $\map f 1 = 1$
- $\forall x \in \closedint 0 1: 0 \le \map f x \le 1$
$X$ is a complete metric space under $\norm {\,\cdot \,}_\infty$.
Proof
For every $n \in \N$, let $f_n \in X$.
Aiming for a contradiction, suppose that in $C \closedint 0 1$:
\(\text {(1)}: \quad\) | \(\ds \lim_{n \mathop \to \infty} \norm {f_n - f}_\infty\) | \(=\) | \(\ds 0\) |
If we can prove that $f \in X$, we know $X$ contains all its limit points.
Hence by Closed Set iff Contains all its Limit Points, $X$ is closed.
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From Topological Completeness is Weakly Hereditary, $X$ is complete.
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It is now to be proved that $f \in X$.
Suppose $\map f 0 \ne 0$.
Then:
- $\forall n \in \N: \norm {f_n - f}_\infty \ge \size {\map {f_n} 0 - \map f 0} = \size {\map f 0} > 0$
This would contradict equation $(1)$.
Hence $\map f 0 = 0$.
Similarly, it is necessary that $\map f 1 = 1$.
Also, for all $n \in \N$ and $x \in \closedint 0 1$, we have that:
- $0 \le \map {f_n} x \le 1$
Suppose there is an $x \in \closedint 0 1$ such that either:
- $\map f x < 0$
or:
- $\map f x > 1$
We see that it must be that:
- $\forall n \in \N: \norm {f_n - f}_\infty \ge \norm {\map {f_n} x - \map f x} > 0$
which contradicts $(1)$.
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Therefore, $f \in X$, and hence $X$ is complete.
$\blacksquare$
Sources
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- 1997: Gerard Buskes and Arnoud van Rooij: Topological Systems: From Distance to Neighborhood: $8.10$ (for the core proof)