Prime not Divisor implies Coprime
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Theorem
Let $p, a \in \Z$.
If $p$ is a prime number then:
- $p \nmid a \implies p \perp a$
where:
It follows directly that if $p$ and $q$ are primes, then:
- $p \divides q \implies p = q$
- $p \ne q \implies p \perp q$
Proof 1
Let $p \in \Bbb P, p \nmid a$.
We need to show that $\gcd \set {a, p} = 1$.
Let $\gcd \set {a, p} = d$.
As $d \divides p$, we must have $d = 1$ or $d = p$ by GCD with Prime.
But if $d = p$, then $p \divides a$ by definition of greatest common divisor.
So $d \ne p$ and therefore $d = 1$.
$\blacksquare$
Proof 2
Let $p$ be a prime number.
Let $a \in \Z$ be such that $p$ is not a divisor of $a$.
Aiming for a contradiction, suppose $p$ and $a$ are not coprime.
Then:
- $\exists c \in \Z_{>1}: c \divides p, c \divides a$
where $\divides$ denotes divisibility.
But then by definition of prime:
- $c = p$
Thus:
- $p \divides a$
The result follows by Proof by Contradiction.
$\blacksquare$
Sources
- 1971: George E. Andrews: Number Theory ... (previous) ... (next): $\text {2-2}$ Divisibility: Example $\text {2-11}$
- 1978: Thomas A. Whitelaw: An Introduction to Abstract Algebra ... (previous) ... (next): $\S 12.1$: Highest common factors and Euclid's algorithm